Matthew 5:31-32

I not forgotten about this project. I have just been busy, but I also have been thinking of the next two lines for a while. It refers to what to do in cases of divorce.

Needless to say, I don’t agree with the idea that one can not get divorced because I have seen too many people who were miserable with one another. I don’t see the point in forcing them to stay together.

I think people should be allowed to get divorced for any reason that they want. However, here, there is only one reason you can get divorced. If I had to pick one reason, it would be spouse abuse. What does Matthew say, “fornication.” Cheating. So if the guy slaps the wife around (or vice-versa) they should stay together.

In fact, he goes on to say that if they do get divorced, then the man is forcing the woman to commit adultery. How someone could force someone to “commit adultery” is beyond me. This is utterly bizarre.

The other unusual thing about this is that as a Catholic, I was taught that one could never get divorced because man can not break what God has joined. OK. Here this clearly contradicts this. In fact, I could see it now. A guy wants to get divorced, but he can’t because he is bound by the bible. So he can ask his wife, “Hey, honey, can you sleep around. Maybe like once? Just sleep with one person, one time, and we can get divorced.”

Again, with the adultery. I guess you can’t get away from it.

Finally, we see that divorce, in Matthew’s universe, is a one way street. A man can “put away his wife”, but it says nothing about divorcing her husband. Hell, she can’t even get him to sleep with one of her friends to get out of a rotten marriage. If he’s beating the crap out of her, and she leaves, guess what?

No, not adultery. Nothing. She can’t.

The more I read this book, the more I think that it should be not shown to young children except as a historical document. Being unfair to woman is no kind of “truth”.

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2 Responses to “Matthew 5:31-32”

  1. equa yona Says:

    The term translated in your translation as ‘fornication’ is ‘porneia’ and it doesn’t mean cheating. There is a very specific word for adultery and for fornication. It is an obscure usage that doesn’t really translate into anything more specific than “uncleanness of some sexual sort”. Anyway, to complicate matters, in Mark 10, Jesus teaches that there is NO valid reason for divorce. 1st Corinthians 7 Paul says that if you are married to an unbeliever and he/she leaves, let the unbeliever go you are not bound, ie grounds for divorce. It is not easy to get straight forward directions from this collection of writings, can I get an amen?

  2. Leroy Glinchy Says:

    I was having a discussion about this with someone. They wanted me to explain the difference between the terms. I thought I had it right, but I was wrong. Thanks for clearing this up.

    Also, thanks for the comments on Mark. I did not know that there are different standards for divorce in that book. This is confusing me more because I was told that there were no contradictions in the bible.

    Finally, please do me a favor, and put SPOILER before you reveal something that comes in a future book. I usually don’t mind spoilers, but I’d like a warning first. Anyway, thanks for the insight.

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